|
1
|
In a governance review, what does Dependency Views help a support agent understand?
|
- Relationships among service instance, offerings, business application, and capability
- CMDB class inheritance behavior
- User role-to-group mappings
- Discovery schedules for CI updates
|
- Relationships among service instance, offerings, business application, and capability
|
|
2
|
What determines how the Assignment Group is automatically populated when creating a record tied to a CI or service offering?
|
- The support or change groups defined on the CI or offering
- CMDB health score calculations
- Discovery rules that assign ownership automatically
- Query Builder logic configured in CMDB Workspace
|
- The support or change groups defined on the CI or offering
|
|
3
|
What best describes the ServiceNow Unified Map? Choose the correct option
|
- Scheduled automation that updates relationships between CIs
- A visual representation of relationships among CIs, services, and applications
- A CMDB class used to group related services
- A transformation process used during CI ingestion
|
- A visual representation of relationships among CIs, services, and applications
|
|
4
|
Which benefits are explicitly associated with Unified Map? (Select 3)
|
- Combines data from multiple sources
- Creates new CI classes automatically
- Replaces Discovery schedules
- Displays upstream and downstream dependencies
|
- Combines data from multiple sources
- Displays upstream and downstream dependencies
|
|
5
|
A CMDB admin wants groups to update automatically based on criteria. Which statement best matches Dynamic CI groups?
|
- They are the same as principal classes
- They are only used for UI filters
- They automate inclusion of CIs based on predefined criteria
- They manually list CIs and never change
|
- They automate inclusion of CIs based on predefined criteria
|
|
6
|
Where are Dynamic CI group records stored?
|
- cmdb_ci_query_based_service
|
- cmdb_ci_query_based_service
|
|
7
|
When a dynamic CI group is selected as the Configuration item on a change request, what happens next?
|
- The change is blocked until Discovery completes
- Member CIs are automatically unpacked into the Affected CIs list
- The group becomes a principal class
- A new taxonomy node is created
|
- Member CIs are automatically unpacked into the Affected CIs list
|
|
8
|
After finalizing the Affected CIs list on a change, what can the system calculate?
|
- Derived impacted services
- New business capabilities
|
- Derived impacted services
|
|
9
|
Which domains are explicitly stated as 'operational' and selectable for ITSM processes such as Incident, Problem, and Change? (Select 2)
|
|
|
|
10
|
A team wants to pick a Business Application in the Incident Configuration item field. Choose the correct statement.
|
- Business applications are dynamic CI groups
- Business applications are operational and should be used in Incident
- Business applications are NOT an Operational CI and should NOT be used in Incident, Problem or Change
- Business applications are stored in cmdb_ci_server
|
- Business applications are NOT an Operational CI and should NOT be used in Incident, Problem or Change
|
|
11
|
What is the purpose of the CSDM Data Foundations Dashboard?
|
- A built-in visualization and reporting tool to assess and improve CSDM implementation
- A module for managing user roles
- A transform map for importing CI data
- A discovery pattern editor
|
- A built-in visualization and reporting tool to assess and improve CSDM implementation
|
|
12
|
Which statement best describes the Foundation domain in CSDM?
|
- Only ITOM discovery tables
- Operational CI tables used for Incident, Problem, Change
- Tables that must always be in the CMDB relationships graph
- Tables that contain base data referenced from or to objects in other domains
|
- Tables that contain base data referenced from or to objects in other domains
|
|
13
|
Why are groups important as foundational data in the labs?
|
- They are the same as taxonomy nodes
- They are used to organize users who share a common purpose or function
- They only control CMDB health metrics
|
- They are used to organize users who share a common purpose or function
|
|
14
|
Why should you associate a group with the Support Group field on a CI or service offering? (Select 2
|
- Populate discovery schedules
- To streamline incident routing
- Auto-populating Assignment Group
|
- To streamline incident routing
- Auto-populating Assignment Group
|
|
15
|
In the labs, why associate a group with the Change Group field on a CI or service offering?
|
- To make Business Applications operational
- To streamline change routing by auto-populating Assignment Group
|
- To streamline change routing by auto-populating Assignment Group
|
|
16
|
What is the Application Service wizard used for?
|
- To create a service instance and configure relationships
- To build KPI group mappings
- To create new CMDB groups
|
- To create a service instance and configure relationships
|
|
17
|
If the Managed By Group set in CI Class Manager differs from the value configured in the service offering for the same CI class, what happens?
|
- Service offering value takes higher priority and overrides
- Discovery schedules decide the final value
- CI Class Manager always takes priority
|
- Service offering value takes higher priority and overrides
|
|
18
|
What best describes Digital Portfolio Management (DPM)?
|
- A unified workspace to holistically view and collectively manage portfolios, services, offerings, and products through the full life cycle
- A scheduled job for CI syncing
- A module that replaces CMDB Workspace
- A transform map for imports
|
- A unified workspace to holistically view and collectively manage portfolios, services, offerings, and products through the full life cycle
|
|
19
|
What is a Service Portfolio in ServiceNow?
|
- A structured representation of all services managed by the service provider, across their life cycle
- A list of CI classes that extend cmdb_ci
- A discovery schedule template
|
- A structured representation of all services managed by the service provider, across their life cycle
|
|
20
|
What is a Taxonomy Node?
|
- A hierarchical classification element used to organize services
|
- A hierarchical classification element used to organize services
|
|
21
|
In DPM, what does a KPI Group Mapping do?
|
- Connects a KPI Group to a specific type of service, offering, or taxonomy node
- Creates CI relationships automatically
- Unpacks dynamic CI groups
|
- Connects a KPI Group to a specific type of service, offering, or taxonomy node
|
|
22
|
Where are product ideas stored?
|
- sn_align_core_product_idea
|
- sn_align_core_product_idea
|
|
23
|
What is a Planning Item according to the lab?
|
- A type of dynamic CI group
- Any type of work that can be aligned to business goals, planned, and executed
|
- Any type of work that can be aligned to business goals, planned, and executed
|
|
24
|
A CMDB admin executes CSDM Data Sync. What does this scheduled job synchronizes?
|
- Taxonomy nodes to portfolios
- Managed by groups from offering to underlying CIs
- Business applications to incidents
|
- Managed by groups from offering to underlying CIs
|
|
25
|
A change owner selects a dynamic CI group as the configuration item. What behavior should they expect next?
|
- The service portfolio is created
- The CI list is filtered by principal classes
- The group is unpacked into Affected CIs
|
- The group is unpacked into Affected CIs
|
|
26
|
Which statement best reflects what CSDM is?
|
- A SKU sold separately from the platform
- A standard and shared set of service-related definitions across products and platform
|
- A standard and shared set of service-related definitions across products and platform
|
|
27
|
A change manager needs a consolidated view showing relationships across services and infrastructure. Which feature should they open from CMDB Workspace?
|
|
|
|
28
|
You want to restrict the CI reference list on incident to core classes only. What configuration approach is suggested?
|
- Designate a principal class
|
- Designate a principal class
|
|
29
|
A change manager needs a consolidated view showing relationships across services and infrastructure. Which feature should they open from CMDB Workspace? Choose the correct option
|
|
|
|
30
|
An organization wants to manage identification rules, reconciliation rules, and CMDB Health for a CI class from a single interface. Which tool should they use?
|
|
|
|
31
|
Before creating a new CMDB class, what should be done first?
|
- Install the CMDB CI Class Models Store App
- Disable reconciliation rules
|
- Install the CMDB CI Class Models Store App
|
|
32
|
Which roles can create new CI classes using CI Class Manager?
|
|
|
|
33
|
What is the purpose of marking a CI class as a Principal Class?
|
- To filter CIs shown in ITSM Configuration Item reference fields
- To improve CMDB Health scores
- To enforce reconciliation rules
|
- To filter CIs shown in ITSM Configuration Item reference fields
|
|
34
|
Your service desk reports that too many irrelevant CIs appear in the Configuration Item field on incidents. What should you configure?
|
|
|
|
35
|
Which attributes are typically used in identification rules? (Choose 3)
|
|
|
|
36
|
What is the primary use of Dependent Relationships?
|
- Impact analysis and lifecycle dependency
|
- Impact analysis and lifecycle dependency
|
|
37
|
Which relationship is logically correct?
|
- Application powers server
|
|
|
38
|
What is the purpose of Reconciliation Rules?
|
- Determine which data source can update CI attributes
|
- Determine which data source can update CI attributes
|
|
39
|
Why are data refresh rules used?
|
- To allow lower-priority sources to update data after inactivity
- To override identification rules
- To improve Discovery speed
|
- To allow lower-priority sources to update data after inactivity
|
|
40
|
What is the primary purpose of the Identification and Reconciliation Engine (IRE)
|
- To replace Discovery and integrations
- To visualize CI relationships
- To process payloads to create and update CIs in the CMDB
- To perform impact analysis
|
- To process payloads to create and update CIs in the CMDB
|
|
41
|
Which problem does the IRE specifically help prevent when ingesting data from multiple sources?
|
- Attribute values changing based on the last data source update
- CMDB Health score failures
|
- Attribute values changing based on the last data source update
|
|
42
|
Which capability is NOT performed by the IRE during CMDB ingestion?
|
|
|
|
43
|
What is the goal of the identification process in the IRE?
|
- To uniquely identify whether a CI already exists
- To classify CI relationships
- To assign authoritative sources
|
- To uniquely identify whether a CI already exists
|
|
44
|
What does the reconciliation process control?
|
- Which data sources can update CI attributes
- CI relationship direction
|
- Which data sources can update CI attributes
|
|
45
|
What happens when duplicate CIs are detected during IRE processing?
|
- A de-duplication task is created
- They are automatically deleted
- They are merged without review
|
- A de-duplication task is created
|
|
46
|
What triggers a reclassification task?
|
- Discovery source mismatch
- A CI matching a different class during identification
|
- A CI matching a different class during identification
|
|
47
|
What are the benefits of configuring identification rules?
|
- CI health score calculation
- Faster Discovery scans and automated reports
- Automatic service mapping
|
|
|
48
|
What happens if a CI’s attributes used in an identification rule are not unique?
|
- Reconciliation rules override identification
- CI will be ignored by Discovery
- Duplicate CIs or overloaded CIs may be created
- CI will be deleted automatically
|
- Duplicate CIs or overloaded CIs may be created
|
|
49
|
Which table does the default Hardware identification rule apply to?
|
- cmdb_ci_hardware and its extended tables
|
- cmdb_ci_hardware and its extended tables
|
|
50
|
What table does the default Application identification rule apply to?
|
|
|
|
51
|
What is a recommended identifier for software applications with multiple instances?
|
- Installation Directory or Configuration File Path
|
- Installation Directory or Configuration File Path
|
|
52
|
Which system property must be enabled to extend optional conditions to non-lookup fields?
|
- glide.discovery.optional_identifier
- glide.cmdb.optional_conditions
- glide.identification_engine.enable_identifier_optional_condition
- glide.ire.enable_identifier
|
- glide.identification_engine.enable_identifier_optional_condition
|
|
53
|
Which of the following are use cases for reconciliation rules? (Choose 3)
|
|
|
|
54
|
How can reconciliation rules prevent lower-priority data sources from overwriting higher-priority data?
|
- By setting an order value for each data source
- By enabling CI Class Manager Health rules
- By disabling identification rules
|
- By setting an order value for each data source
|
|
55
|
What table tracks the last update time for each data source contributing to the CMDB?
|
- cmdb_datasource_last_update
|
- cmdb_datasource_last_update
|
|
56
|
Which of the following best describe Data Refresh Rules? (Choose 2)
|
- Replace identification rules for non-lookup fields
- Ensure CMDB remains up-to-date while respecting reconciliation priorities
- Automatically delete outdated CIs
- Allow lower-priority sources to update CIs if higher-priority sources haven’t updated in a defined interval
|
- Ensure CMDB remains up-to-date while respecting reconciliation priorities
- Allow lower-priority sources to update CIs if higher-priority sources haven’t updated in a defined interval
|
|
57
|
Multiple sources are authorized to update the Windows Server table. If ServiceNow has the lowest order value, what does this mean? (Choose 2)
|
- ServiceNow has the lowest priority
- ServiceNow has the highest priority
- Other sources can overwrite ServiceNow updates anytime
- Reconciliation rules will block lower-priority sources from updating unless allowed by data refresh rules
|
- ServiceNow has the highest priority
- Reconciliation rules will block lower-priority sources from updating unless allowed by data refresh rules
|
|
58
|
What is CMDB 360 / Multisource CMDB primarily used for?
|
- Replacing reconciliation rules
- Tracking CI data only from the highest-priority source
- Retaining complete history of discovery sources and proposed attribute values
- Preventing identification of duplicate CIs
|
- Retaining complete history of discovery sources and proposed attribute values
|
|
59
|
Which capabilities are provided by CMDB 360 that go beyond Multisource CMDB alone? (Choose 2)
|
- Enhanced query functionality
- Identification rule creation
|
- Enhanced query functionality
|
|
60
|
Where can all CMDB 360 capabilities be accessed?
|
- CMDB Workspace -> CMDB 360 view
- Discovery Status dashboard
|
- CMDB Workspace -> CMDB 360 view
|
|
61
|
What are the advantages of using CMDB 360 / Multisource CMDB data? (Choose 3)
|
- Revert CI updates from a discovery source
- Recompute attribute values using updated rules
- Automatically fix incorrect reconciliation rules
- Track CI population by source at attribute level
|
- Revert CI updates from a discovery source
- Recompute attribute values using updated rules
- Track CI population by source at attribute level
|
|
62
|
Without Multisource CMDB enabled, what happens to lower-priority discovery source values?
|
- They are discarded and lost
- They are stored in cmdb_datasource_last_update
- They are stored in a JSON blob
- They overwrite higher-priority values
|
- They are discarded and lost
|
|
63
|
Where is CMDB 360 / Multisource CMDB data stored?
|
- cmdb_datasource_last_update
|
|
|
64
|
What is considered the “golden CI” when Multisource CMDB is enabled?
|
- CI records stored based on identification and reconciliation rules
- All records in cmdb_multisource_data
- The most recently updated CI
- The CI from the highest-priority discovery source
|
- CI records stored based on identification and reconciliation rules
|
|
65
|
What is required to activate CMDB 360 / Multisource CMDB? (Choose 2)
|
- Activate ITOM Discovery License plugin
- Enable cmdb_multisource_data table manually
- Enable glide.identification_engine.multisource_enabled
|
- Activate ITOM Discovery License plugin
- Enable glide.identification_engine.multisource_enabled
|
|
66
|
What is the maximum number of CI records that can be recomputed at once using CMDB 360?
|
|
|
|
67
|
Where can CMDB 360 / Multisource CMDB data be viewed? (Choose 3)
|
- Discovery Status dashboard
- Multisource Data related list
- CMDB 360 Data Preview link
|
- Multisource Data related list
- CMDB 360 Data Preview link
|
|
68
|
How often is the CMDB 360 dashboard data populated?
|
|
|
|
69
|
What is the primary purpose of dynamic reconciliation rules in ServiceNow?
|
- Replace identification rules
- Assign discovery schedules
- Handle complex reconciliation using Multisource CMDB data
|
- Handle complex reconciliation using Multisource CMDB data
|
|
70
|
Which statements accurately describe static reconciliation rules? (Choose 3)
|
- Prevent unauthorized sources from overwriting values
- Define which discovery sources are authorized to update attributes
- Establish priority among multiple discovery sources
- Select attribute values based on largest or most reported value
|
- Prevent unauthorized sources from overwriting values
- Define which discovery sources are authorized to update attributes
- Establish priority among multiple discovery sources
|
|
71
|
What happens if no static reconciliation rules are configured?
|
- Multisource CMDB is disabled
- Discovery sources can overwrite each other’s updates
- Discovery sources are blocked from updating CIs
|
- Discovery sources can overwrite each other’s updates
|
|
72
|
Which rule type takes precedence when both static and dynamic reconciliation rules exist for the same CI attribute?
|
- Discovery source priority
|
|
|
73
|
Where are dynamic reconciliation rules configured?
|
|
|
|
74
|
Which dynamic reconciliation rule types are supported? (Choose 5)
|
|
|
|
75
|
Which dynamic rule types apply only to numeric fields?
|
- First Reported and Last Reported
- Largest Value and Smallest Value
|
- Largest Value and Smallest Value
|
|
76
|
When applying a dynamic reconciliation rule, what does the IRE process first?
|
- Multisource CMDB historical data
- Discovery source priority
- Static reconciliation rules
|
|
|
77
|
Which additional data points may the IRE use when a dynamic rule result is unclear? (Choose 3)
|
|
|
|
78
|
Where are all discovered RAM values stored in the dynamic reconciliation examples?
|
- cmdb_datasource_last_update
|
|
|
79
|
Which rules are applied when both parent and child class dynamic rules exist? (Choose 2)
|
- Child class rule takes precedence
- Parent class rule overrides child
- Parent applies only if no child rule exists
- Static rules override both
|
- Child class rule takes precedence
- Parent applies only if no child rule exists
|
|
80
|
The Server class uses a dynamic reconciliation rule that selects the largest value for the RAM field, while the Windows Server class uses a rule that selects the most reported value. Based on the RAM values available from different discovery sources in the Multisource CMDB for a given Server, which RAM value will ultimately be written to the CMDB for that Server record? Tivoli RAM: 4096 | ServiceNow RAM: 4096 | LANDesk RAM: 2048 | Altiris RAM: 6020
|
|
|
|
81
|
Which of the following are true with respect to the Multisource CMDB? (Choose 2)
|
- Must be activated on base systems
- Is active by default on base systems
- Activate the Multisource CMDB by setting the property, glide.identification_engine.multisource_enabled, to true and installing the ITOM Discovery License plugin
- De-activate the Multisource CMDB by installing the CMDB CI Class Models plugin
|
- Must be activated on base systems
- Activate the Multisource CMDB by setting the property, glide.identification_engine.multisource_enabled, to true and installing the ITOM Discovery License plugin
|
|
82
|
The Server class uses a dynamic reconciliation rule that selects the largest value for the RAM field, while the Windows Server class uses a rule that selects the most reported value. Based on the RAM values available from different discovery sources in the Multisource CMDB for a given Windows Server, which RAM value will ultimately be written to the CMDB for that Windows Server record? Tivoli RAM: 4096 |ServiceNow RAM: 4096 | LANDesk RAM: 2048 |Altiris RAM: 6020
|
|
|
|
83
|
Which of the following can be configured to prevent inserts into the CMDB from an unwanted data source?
|
- Dynamic Reconciliation Rule
|
|
|
84
|
A CI must be in which life cycle state before it can be deleted or archived?
|
|
|
|
85
|
Where does a user go to work through task assignments that are generated by CMDB Data Manager Policies?
|
- CI Class Manager - Health Inclusion Rules tab
- CMDB Health Dashboard - Compliance Scorecard
- CMDB Workspace - My Work tab
- CMDB Workspace - CMDB 360 tab
|
- CMDB Workspace - My Work tab
|
|
86
|
Where is CMDB Data Manager accessible from?
|
- CMDB and CSDM Data Foundations Dashboard
|
|
|
87
|
Which are CMDB Data Manager Policies types? (Choose 2)
|
- Attestation & Certificaiton
- Certification & Governance
|
- Attestation & Certificaiton
|
|
88
|
Which CMDB Data Manager policy type requires CI owners to confirm CI data is accurate and up to date?
|
|
|
|
89
|
Which CMDB Data Manager policy type requires CI owners to very that CIs reported int eh CMDB are still in use?
|
|
|
|
90
|
Which CMDB Data Manager policy types support lifecycle management use cases? (Choose 3)
|
|
|
|
91
|
Which CSDM foundational group attribute can be configured in CI Class Manager?
|
|
|
|
92
|
Which fields can be utilized when creating attestation policies to improve accuracy and avoid showing the same group of recently attested CIs each time? (Choose 2)
|
|
|
|
93
|
What is a correct description of smart detection?
|
- Smart Detection indicates that CIs are available for auto-attestation if they are recently discovered within 60 days as configured in the default system property
- Smart Detection indicates that CIs are available for auto-retirement if they are not recently discovered within 30 days as configured in the default system property
- Smart Detection indicates that CIs are available for auto-retirement if they are not recently discovered within 60 days as configured in the default system property
- Smart Detection indicates that CIs are available for auto-attestation if they are recently discovered within 30 days as configured in the default system property
|
- Smart Detection indicates that CIs are available for auto-attestation if they are recently discovered within 30 days as configured in the default system property
|
|
94
|
Which pillar of a sucessful data foundation does CMDB Data Manager align with?
|
|
|
|
95
|
Which ServiceNow user role must be assigned to a user in order for them to work through CMDB Data Managaer task assignments?
|
|
|
|
96
|
What are the pillar approach to a successful data foundation? (Choose 3)
|
|
|
|
97
|
Which statements correctly describe what CSDM is? (Choose 2)
|
- It enables true service-level management and provides prescriptive guidance on service modeling
- It is used exclusively for creating Incident and Change records
- It defines how to code new applications in ServiceNow
- It provides a shared set of service-related definitions across ServiceNow products and platform
|
- It enables true service-level management and provides prescriptive guidance on service modeling
- It provides a shared set of service-related definitions across ServiceNow products and platform
|
|
98
|
What is the primary purpose of the Ideation & Strategy domain?
|
- Capture ideas, goals, and strategic intent
- Support incident resolution
- Track infrastructure components
|
- Capture ideas, goals, and strategic intent
|
|
99
|
Which artifacts belong to the Ideation & Strategy domain? (Choose 3)
|
|
|
|
100
|
From which of the following can the Managed by group be configured and synchonized to the underlying group or class of Configuration Items (CIs)? (Choose 2)
|
- Technology Management Offerings
- Technology Management Services
- Business Service Offerings
|
- Technology Management Services
|
|
101
|
What are the CSDM Domains? (Choose 5)
|
|
|
|
102
|
Which of the following are considered operational CIs and can be selected in the Configuration Item field on Incident or Change records? (Choose 3)
|
- Business Service Offerings
|
- Business Service Offerings
|
|
103
|
Which of the following actions are included in configuring foundational data within CSDM? (Choose 2)
|
- Creating business applications
- Creating locations and hierarchical structures
- Configuring business service offerings
- Creating groups such as Support and Change Groups
|
- Creating locations and hierarchical structures
- Creating groups such as Support and Change Groups
|
|
104
|
Which of the following are true about Business Applications in the CSDM Design & Planning domain? (Choose 3)
|
- They represent inventory/portfolio of applications and metadata
- They are version-specific
- They are created and maintained by Enterprise Architecture
- They should NOT be used in Incident, Problem, or Change
|
- They represent inventory/portfolio of applications and metadata
- They are created and maintained by Enterprise Architecture
- They should NOT be used in Incident, Problem, or Change
|
|
105
|
Which of the following describe Service Consumption domain elements in CSDM? (Choose 2)
|
- Business Service Offerings
- Technology Management Services
|
- Business Service Offerings
|
|
106
|
Which of the following statements about Technology Management Services are correct? (Choose 2)
|
- They are synonymous with Business Capabilities
- They are used only for design and planning purposes
- They are operational CIs available for Incident and Change processes
- They represent technical services provided to the business
|
- They are operational CIs available for Incident and Change processes
- They represent technical services provided to the business
|
|
107
|
What is the purpose of the ServiceNow CSDM Data Foundations Dashboard? (Choose 2)
|
- To visualize and assess your CSDM implementation
- To configure Business Applications automatically
- To provide a roadmap to mature your CMDB into a fully CSDM-compliant model
- To directly create Incidents and Changes
|
- To visualize and assess your CSDM implementation
- To provide a roadmap to mature your CMDB into a fully CSDM-compliant model
|
|
108
|
Which of the following are considered foundational data in CSDM? (Choose 2)
|
|
|
|
109
|
Which of the following correctly describe the Design & Planning domain? (Choose 2)
|
- Tables are the direct targets of ITSM processes such as Incident or Change
- Represents tables used by Enterprise Architecture (EA)
- Represents logical design of enterprise applications for planning purposes
- Used primarily to configure Business Service Offerings
|
- Represents tables used by Enterprise Architecture (EA)
- Represents logical design of enterprise applications for planning purposes
|
|
110
|
Which of the following correctly describe a Business Capability in CSDM? (Choose 2)
|
- Represents a high-level capability required by an organization
- Can be used to rationalize and prioritize spending on business applications and services
- Is an operational CI selectable in Incident records
- Is synonymous with a Technology Management Service
|
- Represents a high-level capability required by an organization
- Can be used to rationalize and prioritize spending on business applications and services
|
|
111
|
Which of the following statements are true about Business Services? (Choose 2)
|
- They are published to business users and underpin one or more business capabilities
- They are version-specific operational CIs
- Business users can order service offerings via a request catalog
- They are primarily used by Enterprise Architects for planning
|
- They are published to business users and underpin one or more business capabilities
- Business users can order service offerings via a request catalog
|
|
112
|
Which statements correctly describe Business Service Offerings? (Choose 2)
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- Consist of one or more service commitments
- Define availability, scope, pricing, and other service factors
- Are used primarily for design and planning, not ITSM
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- Consist of one or more service commitments
- Define availability, scope, pricing, and other service factors
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113
|
Which of the following Life Cycle phases and statuses are required for Business Services and Offerings to display KPI metrics? (Choose 2)
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114
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Which statements correctly describe Technology Management Services? (Choose 2)
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- Underpins one or more business or application services
- Represent technical services published to service owners
- Are non-operational tables used only for design
- Are synonymous with Business Service Offerings
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- Underpins one or more business or application services
- Represent technical services published to service owners
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115
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Which statements are true about Technology Management Service Offerings?
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- Include options such as environment, pricing, availability, and support group
- Are used primarily by Enterprise Architects to plan services
- Are operational CIs selectable for ITSM processes
- Are always non-operational and only for reporting
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- Include options such as environment, pricing, availability, and support group
- Are operational CIs selectable for ITSM processes
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116
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Which CSDM personas are associated with the Service Delivery domain? (Choose 3)
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117
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Which of the following can be configured when creating a Service Instance using the CSDM Application Service Wizard? (Choose 3)
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- Business Capability ownership
- Support and Change Groups
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- Support and Change Groups
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118
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Which of the following are correctly associated with a Service Instance? (Choose 3)
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- Business Service Offering
- Technology Management Service Offering
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- Business Service Offering
- Technology Management Service Offering
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119
|
Which CSDM elements are considered operational and selectable for ITSM processes? (Choose 3)
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- Business Service Offering
- Technology Management Service
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- Business Service Offering
- Technology Management Service
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120
|
Which of the following are personas associated with Service Consumption domain? (Choose 2)
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- Business Relationship Manager
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- Business Relationship Manager
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121
|
Which of the following are steps when creating a Service Instance using the wizard? (Choose 3)
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- Define Business Capabilities in the Design & Planning domain
- Enter Number and Name of the service instance
- Associate it with business applications, service offerings, and technology management offerings
- Configure Service Population Method
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- Enter Number and Name of the service instance
- Associate it with business applications, service offerings, and technology management offerings
- Configure Service Population Method
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122
|
Which of the following provides a unified workspace that allows owners to holistically view and collectively manage their portfolios, services, offereings, and products through the full lifecycle?
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- Digital Portfolio Managment
- Service Operations Workspace
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123
|
Where do you navigate to access the CSDM Data Foundations Dashboard?
|
- Digital Portfolio Management
- Configuration > CSDM Data Foundations Dashboard
- Service Operations Workspace
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- Configuration > CSDM Data Foundations Dashboard
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124
|
What is the purpose of the metrics displayed on the CSDM Data Foundations Dashboard?
|
- To validate Discovery sources
- To represent good practices for establishing services using CSDM principles
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- To represent good practices for establishing services using CSDM principles
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125
|
Why might the metrics on the CSDM Data Foundations Dashboard not reflect the current configuration?
|
- They are updated on a scheduled basis
- They require manual refresh
- They are tied to Discovery schedules
- They only update after upgrades
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- They are updated on a scheduled basis
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126
|
What additional guidance is provided alongside each metric on the CSDM Data Foundations Dashboard?
|
- A playbook explaining importance, impacts, and remediation
|
- A playbook explaining importance, impacts, and remediation
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127
|
How does implementing CSDM improve Incident Management?
|
- Faster and more accurate assignment of tasks
- Improved root cause analysis
- Manual assignment group selection
- Removal of service context
|
- Faster and more accurate assignment of tasks
- Improved root cause analysis
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|
128
|
Which services are selectable from the Service field on an Incident record?
|
- Only Application Services
- Service instance, Business Service, and Technology Management Service
|
- Service instance, Business Service, and Technology Management Service
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129
|
Why are services and offerings selectable for Incident records?
|
- They are manually configured
- They are stored in base system tables
- They inherit from CMDB CI
- They are marked as operational
|
- They are marked as operational
|
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130
|
What determines the Assignment Group when saving an Incident?
|
- Business application owner
- Support group on the CI or offering
|
- Support group on the CI or offering
|
|
131
|
What primary benefit does CSDM provide for Change Management?
|
- Reduced number of changes
- Visibility into business impact of proposed changes
- Removal of CI relationships
|
- Visibility into business impact of proposed changes
|
|
132
|
Which field is used by CSDM to auto-populate the Assignment Group on a Change record?
|
|
|
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133
|
How does CSDM change the way Event Management operates?
|
- Infrastructure-centric approach
|
|
|
134
|
Why problem would you try to solve by using dynamic CI groups?
|
- naccurate Service Mapping
- Manual updates caused by constant CI additions
|
- Manual updates caused by constant CI additions
|
|
135
|
Which scheduled job syncs CI Class Manager data to CIs?
|
- Update Query Based Services
|
|
|
136
|
How do dynamic CI groups differ from CMDB groups?
|
- They use predefined criteria
- They require manual CI additions
- They automate CI inclusion
|
- They use predefined criteria
- They automate CI inclusion
|
|
137
|
In which table are Dynamic CI Groups stored?
|
- cmdb_ci_query_based_service
|
- cmdb_ci_query_based_service
|
|
138
|
Which configuration takes precedence if Managed By Group differs?
|
|
|
|
139
|
What happens when a Dynamic CI Group is selected on a change record?
|
- Only the group is impacted
- Member CIs are unpacked into Affected CIs
- Assignment group must be manual
|
- Member CIs are unpacked into Affected CIs
|
|
140
|
What flexibility does Dynamic CI Group usage provide in Change Management? (Choose 3)
|
- Ability to remove CIs from the change
- Calculate the derived impacted services
- Visibility to all impacted services
|
- Ability to remove CIs from the change
- Calculate the derived impacted services
- Visibility to all impacted services
|
|
141
|
What is a key operational benefit of dynamic CI groups?
|
- Reduced manual maintenance
- Automatic Service Mapping
- Elimination of CI classes
|
|
|
142
|
How do Dynamic CI Groups reduce change triage time?
|
- By auto-assigning incidents
- By disabling CI relationships
- By unpacking affected CIs automatically
|
- By unpacking affected CIs automatically
|
|
143
|
Which statement correctly differentiates a CMDB Group from a Dynamic CI Group?
|
- CMDB Groups automatically include CIs based on predefined criteria, while Dynamic CI Groups require manual updates
- CMDB Groups organize CIs for management and tracking, while Dynamic CI Groups automate CI inclusion to reduce manual effort
- CMDB Groups replace service offerings, while Dynamic CI Groups replace CI Class Manager
- CMDB Groups are used only for change management, while Dynamic CI Groups are used only for incident management
|
- CMDB Groups organize CIs for management and tracking, while Dynamic CI Groups automate CI inclusion to reduce manual effort
|
|
144
|
What are the minimum roles required to grant access to Digital Portfolio Management (DPM) applications, modules, and workspace
|
|
|
|
145
|
What is the purpose of a Service Portfolio?
|
- To manage services across their life cycle
- To configure dynamic CI groups
|
- To manage services across their life cycle
|
|
146
|
Where can a Service Portfolio and Taxonomy Node be associated to services?
|
- Details tab in Service Builder
|
|
|
147
|
When opening Digital Portfolio Management, why did the “No performance metrics” message display initially?
|
- KPIs were not configured for the service portfolio
- The taxonomy node was empty
|
- KPIs were not configured for the service portfolio
|
|
148
|
What is a KPI Group?
|
- A predefined collection of KPIs used to evaluate services or offerings
|
- A predefined collection of KPIs used to evaluate services or offerings
|
|
149
|
What does KPI Group Mapping do?
|
- Connects a KPI Group to a specific service, offering, or taxonomy node
|
- Connects a KPI Group to a specific service, offering, or taxonomy node
|
|
150
|
What determines the level at which KPI data is calculated?
|
|
|
|
151
|
What does Digital Portfolio Managment(DPM) Workspace primarily provide?
|
- Discovery troubleshooting
- A centralized, role-based workspace for managing services as digital products
|
- A centralized, role-based workspace for managing services as digital products
|
|
152
|
A customer service manager cannot see which customers are subscribed to a Business Service Offering when reviewing impact from an incident. Which configuration steps must be completed to provide this visibility? (Choose 2)
|
- Add Task → Service Offering related list to the Business Service Offering form
- Add Sold Product → Service Offering related list to the Business Service Offering form
- Add Service Offering field to the Case form
- Enable Edit button on Product Model Offerings related list
|
- Add Task → Service Offering related list to the Business Service Offering form
- Add Sold Product → Service Offering related list to the Business Service Offering form
|
|
153
|
Why is integrating CSM with SPM under CSDM considered strategically valuable? (Choose 2)
|
- It removes dependency on CMDB
- It eliminates the need for incidents
- It enables consistent service mapping and reporting
- It ensures customer-facing services are tied to underlying services
|
- It enables consistent service mapping and reporting
- It ensures customer-facing services are tied to underlying services
|
|
154
|
When a Case is escalated to an Incident, which data relationships are automatically preserved? (Choose 2)
|
- Contact is automatically copied to the Incident
- Service Offering is automatically populated
- Work notes contain reference to the Case number
- Product Model relationship is removed
|
- Service Offering is automatically populated
- Work notes contain reference to the Case number
|
|
155
|
When creating a Case and entering the Sold Product field, which fields are auto-populated? (Choose 3)
|
|
|
|
156
|
After configuring related lists on the Business Service Offering form, what insights become available? (Choose 2)
|
- Customers impacted by an incident
- Technical CI relationships
- Incidents opened against the offering
|
- Customers impacted by an incident
- Incidents opened against the offering
|
|
157
|
From the Incident record, where can visibility back to the originating Case be confirmed?
|
- Customer Cases related list
|
- Customer Cases related list
|
|
158
|
Which statements accurately describe the Ideation Domain in CSDM? (Choose 2)
|
- It stores only technical CI enhancements
- It includes strategic efforts to provide value to customers
- It represents ideas, concepts, and improvements for services
- It replaces the Design & Planning domain
|
- It includes strategic efforts to provide value to customers
- It represents ideas, concepts, and improvements for services
|
|
159
|
Which ServiceNow solution supports the Ideation and Strategy domain activities?
|
- Strategic Portfolio Management
|
- Strategic Portfolio Management
|
|
160
|
The Product Idea table extends which base table?
|
|
|
|
161
|
A product idea is evaluated and determined to have potential business value. What is the next logical step?
|
- Convert it into a Planning Item (Demand)
- Link it directly to a Service Offering
- Retire the business application
|
- Convert it into a Planning Item (Demand)
|
|
162
|
Why does the linked demand appear under the “Planning Item” column on the Product Idea record?
|
- Because a demand is a type of Planning Item
- Because demands are child records of Product Ideas
- Because the system duplicates records automatically
|
- Because a demand is a type of Planning Item
|
|
163
|
A Product Idea can represent which of the following? (Choose 2)
|
|
|
|
164
|
Where are all Planning Items stored?
|
- Planning Item table and tables extending it
- Business Application table
|
- Planning Item table and tables extending it
|
|
165
|
A product owner collaborates with an enterprise architect, and the idea relates to an existing application. What should be done?
|
- Assign the idea to a Business Application record
- Link it to an Installed Software record
|
- Assign the idea to a Business Application record
|
|
166
|
Which CSDM domain is used by Enterprise Architecture (EA)? (Choose 2)
|
|
|
|
167
|
If an application is slated for retirement, why is linking ideas and planning items to the business application critical?
|
- It enables automatic archiving
- It prevents wasted planning efforts
- It deletes associated demands
- It disables the Planning Item table
|
- It prevents wasted planning efforts
|
|
168
|
Why do both the Demand and Product Idea appear in the Planning Items related list on the Business Application?
|
- They are manually duplicated into the related list
- Both extend the Planning Item table
- Workspace automatically merges tables
|
- Both extend the Planning Item table
|
|
169
|
Which statement best describes the strategic value of linking Product Ideas and Planning Items to a Business Application?
|
- It reduces CMDB reconciliation conflicts
- It automates portfolio scoring
- It allows application owners to instantly understand pipeline and modernization efforts
- It prevents duplication of CIs
|
- It allows application owners to instantly understand pipeline and modernization efforts
|
|
170
|
Which table does Demand extend?
|
|
|